This lesson is on irregularities the präteritum, and has a sentence in the perfect as a comparison. The sentence is:
Sie hat die Leute wegfahren sehen. The translation is
“She saw the people drive away.” with a literal translation “She has the people away+to drive to see.”
Why is the infinitive of sehen used here rather than the past participle gesehen, since hat is the auxiliary verb?
Is it because the sentence ends with two verbs?