Direct and indirect pronouns

One of the things that helped me in the lessons was how they showed a progression of sentences that started very specific and substituted in the direct and indirect pronouns. For example: I gave Mary a present. Di María un regalo. The subject is "I" which is omitted in the Spanish. The object is present. The indirect object is Mary. I gave a present to Mary. Le di un regalo a María. This is more explicit in specifying that the present is being given to Mary. Mary is still the indirect object. This sentence is using 'le' as an indirect object pronoun for Mary but is using the clause "a Mary" to disambiguate it. I gave it to Mary. Lo di a María. Lo is replacing the direct object present. I gave her the present. Le di un regalo. Le di un regalo a ella. Le is replacing Mary. In the second sentence I am specifying 'her' to disambiguate. I gave it to her. Se lo di. Se lo di a ella. Se is used instead of le and replaces Mary. Lo replaces present. Indirect object pronouns always preceed direct object pronouns in Spanish. Finally, here is a progression of sentences given without comment. I am going to give a present to Mary. Voy a dar un regalo a María. I am going to give it to Mary. Voy a darlo a María. I am going to give her the present. Voy a darle un regalo. I am going to give it to her. Voy a dárselo.

Robert, this progression helps clarify what for me is one of the most challenging aspects of Spanish grammar. Thank you for sharing. Dan

Hola a todos, I have posted this link, regarding the need for the redundant indirect object pronoun, before. Here it is again: http://www.lightspeedspanish.co.uk/20111109-podcast-15-double-pronouns-in-spanish/ Saludos, Ricardo

Early in my example, I wrote this and I wonder if it is correct: I gave Mary a present. Di María un regalo. This sentence uses one of those verbs that seems to require an indirect object pronoun (IOP) even if the indirect object (María) is explicitly named. However, in the first sentence, I put María before the subject. I am guessing this is not totally kosher Spanish. I gave a present to Mary. Le di un regalo a María. Now in this second form, I am using a more standard Spanish grammatical form. I guess 'dar' is a verb that requires an IOP if I specify to whom I am giving the present. Is it OK to use use IOP even with verbs that don't require it?

Hola Robert, Le di un regalo a María is correct and Di María un regalo did not sound right to me and that's why I pasted the link. Yes it is OK to use the IOP even when not required. In the Dorothy Richmond book"Spanish Pronouns And Prepositions" regarding redundant IOPs it's stated:" A final reason for using the redundant construction is that this is the way it's done. Perhaps this is not a satisfying answer in the rational sense; however, all languages, like all people, have their distinct charms that defy reason. The redundant use of "a" + a noun or pronoun is part of the charm of Spanish". Saludos, Ricardo