I understand that LO can mean him, her or it, but I'm at a loss of it's placement in a sentence. Why is it that it is placed before verbs, (eg, lo nesecito, lo conozco, etc), but when used with the verb escribir it is placed "afterwards" (escribo lo)? Thanx.
February 7, 2006
I can see how you are at a loss, to tell you the truth so I'm I, As far as I know, "Escribo lo" is incorrect use of the language. If you want to say, "I write it," it should be "Lo escribo."
The only way I can think of that you could put "lo" at the end of a verb is either in the command form, e.g. "¡Escríbelo ahora!" (Write it now!) or in the infinitive form, e.g. "Voy a escribirlo mañana" (I am going to write it tomorrow).
Remember that the "lo" will change to "la" if the object of the preposition is feminine. If you are talking about writing a letter (la carta), you would say, "Voy a escribirla mañana," or, "¡Escríbela ahora!"
I hope that helps.
February 8, 2006
I looked up the rule for placing direct and indirect pronouns. It goes as follows for object pronouns:
Placement of object pronouns. They are attached to the end of affirmative commands, infinitives, and -ndo forms; in all other cases they go immediately before the verb.
A reference on the web is at:
Hope this helps,
February 9, 2006
Thanks for the responses.
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